Right of Pre-emption 5item From Islamic texts it is understood that if one of the two partners sells his share to a third party, the second partner is entitled to the pre-emption right. However, could the encouragement, by the second partner, of a potential buyer to buy the share of the other partner or making it known that he is not going to exercise pre-emption if the third party buys the share of his partner, be considered a relinquishment of pre-emption right? A person rented one floor of a two-storey building. The property is owned by two brothers who are indebted to the tenant for a sum of money. Despite repeated requests by the creditor, the two brothers have been avoiding payment of the debt for the past two years. He concluded that it is within his right to retrieve his money by possessing a portion of the building. The value of the property is higher than the value of debt. In this way, he becomes a partner in the property of the two brothers. Can he exercise pre-emption on the rest of the property? Two people jointly bought some property whereby it was officially registered in their names. However, in a separate contract, they partitioned the property into two, each with its own boundaries. Has either party the right to exercise pre-emption over the property of the other partner, in the event of sale, by virtue of having an official document pointing to the joint ownership of the property? When two persons share in an endowed property and one of them sells his share - in a case he is allowed to do that, does the other enjoy the right of pre-emption? If two people rent some property - whether or not it is an endowment, then one of them transfers his right to the other through either a rent or ṣulḥ contract, does the other have the right of pre-emption? To give an example, one of the partners sold his share to a third party where it is shar‘ī to do so. And is it permissible where renting is involved? To give an example, two people jointly rented some property or an endowment. Is it permissible for either party to transfer their share by way of sub-letting the property to a third party? Is dropping pre-emption right before one of the partners sells his share to a third party, perceived as unlawful?