A currency dealer bought old currency for the price of new, not knowing that its value was almost half of that of the current one. This dealer sold the same currency for the same price. Is it obligatory on the person who thinks that they did not treat the buyer fairly to inform him of the "unfairness"? Are such deals valid and, therefore, can one have the right of disposal of the profit made thereof, or could it be a case of money of anonymous owner or that of tainted money?
Category: Buying and Selling Gold, Silver and Money
There is no objection to buying old currency in a deal for a price agreed between two parties, even though the price of the old currency is much less than the current one. Thus, the sale is valid, although it may be seen as unfair. This is so because the object offered for sale is real property which has value, albeit cheaper than the current currency. Thinking that he did not treat the buyer fairly, the vendor is not required to inform him. Any profits that may have been made from such dealings should be treated as the rest of his property. Accordingly, the person has the right of disposal over such income unless the person has revoked the sale.